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Slavery has redefined itself into newer forms. One such manifestation is in the form of worker exploitation.


I am interested to hear your reasoning on this. To me, thinking through it, I see some potential commonalities but the sine qua non of being owned as property fails. Is the argument that people have to work in general to survive, and it is the fact that they have to work what renders them as a “modern slave?” I hope not because that seems facile.


Words don’t redefine themselves.

Describing low-paying jobs as “slavery” is a metaphor. Saying “certain aspects of X are like Y” does not mean Y ‘is’ X.

But, of course, that is often why rhetoricians use metaphors and similes… to dupe and confuse people into a false equivalence.

There are slaves in this world… diluting the meaning of the word to include Uber drivers does not help them.


That is not the argument. The argument is that Uber business model is more cost-effective than Slavery. (And without trying to sound insensitive here)...the "slave owner" still bears the costs of his "slaves".


But it’s still not profitable, unlike slavery which was extremely profitable. So how can it be more effective?


"Slave owners" did not have high AWS bills, Stock Based compensation, Sales and Marketing and so on...

"Uber Technologies Operating Expenses 2017-2021 | UBER"

https://www.macrotrends.net/stocks/charts/UBER/uber-technolo....

"Uber Announces Results for Fourth Quarter and Full Year 2021"

https://investor.uber.com/news-events/news/press-release-det...




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